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Mandate of gov't queried

THE EDITOR, Madam:

I NOTICE the Government appears to be moving towards the engagement of the Carib-bean Court of Justice, with the other Caribbean states, in spite of reservations raised by several persons and groups in the society. It is my understanding that the CCJ is to replace the Privy council as the final court of appeal.

My question is: would the last election be seen as a mandate for the present government even though there was a significant low voter turnout. If this is the case, what could be seen as an acceptable percentage of voter participation to invoke the mantle of a mandate? If there is no mandate for the present government, what right does it have to alter the final court of appeal?

Can someone familiar with the constitution and political science be able to answer this basic question. It should help to define the condition in which we find ourselves, with a government ruling a disenfranchised, alienated and increasingly hostile population. The answer may well lead to a plan for the solution to our present condition.

I am etc.,

HUGH M. DUNBAR

E-mail: hmd-energy@erols.comi

West New York, NJ

Via Go-Jamaica

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